Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 157

Đọc đoạn văn sau và trả lời các câu hỏi: The cause of tooth decay is acid, which is produced by bacteria in
the mouth. The acid removes minerals from tooth enamel, allowing
tooth decay to begin; the saliva in your mouth encourages remineralization
and neutralizes the acid. The rate at which bacteria in the mouth
5 produce acid depends on the amount of plaque on the teeth, the composition
of the microbial flora, and whether the bacteria of the plaque have
been "primed" by frequent exposure to sugar. To keep your teeth healthy,
a regular dental hygiene program should be followed.

10 Removing plaque with a toothbrush and dental floss temporarily reduces
the numbers of bacteria in the mouth and thus reduces tooth decay.
It also makes the surfaces of the teeth more accessible, enabling
saliva to neutralize acid and remineralize lesions. If fluoride is
present in drinking water when teeth are forming, some fluoride is
15 incorporated into the enamel of the teeth, making them more resistant
to attack by acid. Fluoride toothpaste seems to act in another way,
by promoting the remineralization of early carious lesions.

In addition to a regular dental hygiene program, a good way to keep
20 your teeth healthy is to reduce your intake of sweet food. The least
cavity-causing way to eat sweets is to have them with meals and not
between. The number of times you eat sweets rather than the total
amount determines how much harmful acid the bacteria in your saliva
produce. But the amount of sweets influences the quality of your
25 saliva. Avoid, if you can, sticky sweets that stay in your mouth
a long time. Also try to brush and floss your teeth after eating
sugary foods. Even rinsing your mouth with water is effective. Whenever
possible, eat foods with fiber, such as raw carrot sticks, apples,
celery sticks, etc., that scrape off plaque, acting as a toothbrush.
30 Cavities can be greatly reduced if these rules are followed when
eating sweets.1. What does this passage mainly discuss?
(A) Good nutrition
(B) Food with fiber
(C) Ways to keep your teeth healthy
(D) Fluoridization and cavities
2. According to the passage, all of the following statements about plaque are true EXCEPT
(A) It consists of acid producing bacteria
(B) It is not affected by eating sweets
(C) It can be removed from teeth by brushing and flossing
(D) It reduces the positive effect of saliva
3. We can infer from the passage that one benefit of fluoride to healthy teeth is
(A) It strengthens tooth enamel
(B) It stimulates saliva production
(C) It makes teeth whiter
(D) It is a replacement for brushing and flossing in dental care
4. The word "it" in line 12 refers to
(A) dental floss
(B) bacteria
(C) removal of plaque
(D) plaque
5. What can be concluded from the passage about sweets?
(A) All sweets should be avoided.
(B) Sweets should be eaten with care.
(C) It is better to eat sweets a little at a time throughout the day.
(D) Sticky sweets are less harmful than other sweets.
6. The word "scrape off" in line 29 is closest in meaning to
(A) repel
(B) rub together with
(C) remove
(D) dissolve
7. It can be inferred from the passage that foods with fiber are
(A) sugary
(B) expensive
(C) sticky
(D) abrasive
8. According to the passage, the value of eating foods with fiber is that
(A) they contain Vitamin A
(B) they are less expensive than a toothbrush
(C) they are able to remove the plaque from your teeth
(D) they contain no sugar
9. The author of the passage states that the amount of acid produced by the bacteria in your saliva increases
(A) with the amount of sweets you eat
(B) with the number of times you eat sweets
(C) if you eat sweets with your meals
(D) if you eat sticky sweets

Back Test with: Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 156 and Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 157

Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 156

Đọc đoạn văn sau và trả lời các câu hỏi: When Daniel Boone died peacefully in bed in his son Nathan's elegant
stone Missouri farmhouse on September 26, 1820, the surge of emigrants
along the Oregon Trail was still a generation away. But Boone already
exemplified the pioneer at his best. He was neither the physical
5 giant (five feet nine) nor the innocent child of nature that legend
has made of him. He was an intelligent, soft spoken family man who
cherished the same wife for 57 years. He befriended Indians, preferred
company to solitude, and when he told his wife it was time to move
because a newcomer had settled some 70 miles away, he was joking.
10
Pennsylvania-born, Boone was one of 11 children in a family of Quakers
who migrated to North Carolina. There Boone was recruited at age
40 to undertake a scheme designed to open up Kentucky to settlers
and establish it as a 14th colony. He arranged a deal by which the
15 Cherokees sold 20 million acres for $20,000 worth of goods to Boone's
employers, the Transylvania Company. It was all fair and square-the
Indians had an attorney, an interpreter, and the sound advice of
their squaws. The deal completed, Boone led a party from Tennessee
through the Cumberland Gap, hacked out the Wilderness Road, and set
20 up a town- Boonesboro-and a government. Elected a legislator, he
introduced on the first session's first day a bill to protect game
against wanton slaughter and a second bill to "improve the breed
of horses." He got 2,000 acres for his work, but after the Revolution-in
which Boone won considerable fame as a militia commander-the scheme
25 of the Transylvania Company was declared illegal and Boone lost his
land. Undaunted, he staked out more claims-and lost them because
he impatiently neglected to register his deeds. Ever hopeful, he
accepted an invitation from Spanish-held Missouri to come and settle
there and bring others with him. The Spanish gave him 8,500 acres
30 and made him a judge. But the Louisiana Purchase, which embraced
Missouri, again left him-but not his children-landless. Old and broke,
Boone cheerfully continued hunting and trapping long after his hands
shook. Shortly before he died, he was talking knowledgeably with
young men about the joys to be experienced in settling California.1. What is the author's purpose in writing this passage?
(A) To chronicle the life of a model pioneer
(B) To romanticize the legend of Daniel Boone
(C) To show Boone's many successes on the frontier
(D) To trace Boone's explorations in Kentucky, Missouri, and Louisiana
2. The word "surge" in line 2 is closest in meaning to
(A) remains
(B) attraction
(C) rush
(D) rumor
3. It can be inferred that one area in which Boone was NOT successful was
(A) politics
(B) hunting and trapping
(C) business
(D) the military
4. The phrase "fair and square" in lines 16 is closest in meaning to
(A) honest
(B) simple
(C) efficient
(D) lucrative
5. It can be inferred from the passage that Boone died
(A) a rich man
(B) an eternal optimist
(C) in California
(D) a lonely trapper
6. According to the passage, where is Boone's namesake city located?
(A) In North Carolina
(B) In Transylvania
(C) In Kentucky
(D) In Missouri
7. The Transylvania Company wanted Boone to
(A) settle Kentucky
(B) be fair to the Indians
(C) ensure animal rights
(D) claim Missouri
8. The word "undaunted" in line 26 is closest in meaning to
(A) unscrupulous
(B) fearless
(C) undiscouraged
(D) uninformed
9. According to the passage, the Louisiana Purchase
(A) legitimized Boone's land claim in Missouri
(B) revoked the earlier Spanish bequest to Boone
(C) drove the Spanish from the East
(D) excluded Missouri from its jurisdiction
10. What can be inferred from the passage about Boone's children?
(A) They were better off financially than Boone.
(B) They supported Boone's desire to settle new areas.
(C) They lived in Kentucky.
(D) They had no land due to Boone's bad investments.
11. The author's attitude toward Daniel Boone in the passage can be best described as
(A) admiring
(B) critical
(C) admonishing
(D) indifferent

Back Test with: Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 156 and Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 155

Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 155

Đọc đoạn văn sau và trả lời các câu hỏi: This rapid transcontinental settlement and these new urban industrial
circumstances of the last half of the 19th century were accompanied
by the development of a national literature of great abundance and
variety. New themes, new forms, new subjects, new regions, new authors,
5 new audiences all emerged in the literature of this half century.
As a result, at the onset of World War I, the spirit and substance
of American literature had evolved remarkably, just as its center
of production had shifted from Boston to New York in the late 1880s
and the sources of its energy to Chicago and the Midwest. No longer
10 was it produced, at least in its popular forms, in the main by solemn,
typically moralistic men from New England and the Old South; no longer
were polite, well-dressed, grammatically correct, middle-class young
people the only central characters in its narratives; no longer were
these narratives to be set in exotic places and remote times; no
15 longer, indeed, were fiction, poetry, drama, and formal history the
chief acceptable forms of literary expression; no longer, finally,
was literature read primarily by young, middle class women. In sum,
American literature in these years fulfilled in considerable measure
the condition Walt Whitman called for in1867 in describing Leaves
20 of Grass: it treats, he said of his own major work, each state and
region as peers "and expands from them, and includes the world ...
connecting an American citizen with the citizens of all nations."
At the same time, these years saw the emergence of what has been
designated "the literature of argument," powerful works in sociology,
25 philosophy, psychology, many of them impelled by the spirit of exposure
and reform. Just as America learned to play a role in this half century
as an autonomous international political, economic, and military
power, so did its literature establish itself as a producer of major
works.1. The main idea of this passage is
(A) that the new American literature was less provincial than the old
(B) that World War I caused a dramatic change in America
(C) that centers of culture shifted from East to West
(D) that most people were wary of the new literature
2. It can be inferred from lines 1-3 that the previous passage probably discussed
(A) the importance of tradition to writers
(B) new developments in industrialization and population shifts
(C) the fashions and values of 19th century America
(D) the limitations of American literature to this time
3. The word "evolved" in line 7 is closest in meaning to
(A) became famous
(B) turned back
(C) diminished
(D) changed
4. The word "it" in line 10 refers to
(A) the population
(B) the energy
(C) American literature
(D) the manufacturing
5. The word "exotic" in line 14 is closest in meaning to
(A) urban
(B) unusual
(C) well-known
(D) old-fashioned
6. The author uses the word "indeed" in line 15 for what purpose?
(A) To emphasize the contrast he is making
(B) For variety in a lengthy paragraph
(C) To wind down his argument
(D) To show a favorable attitude to these forms of literature
7. The phrase "these years" in line 18 refers to
(A) 1850-1900
(B) the 1900s
(C) the early 1800s
(D) the present
8. It can be inferred from the passage that Walt Whitman
(A) disliked urban life
(B) was disapproving of the new literature
(C) wrote Leaves of Grass
(D) was an international diplomat
9. All of the following can be inferred from the passage about the new literature EXCEPT
(A) It was not highly regarded internationally
(B) It introduced new American themes, characters, and settings
(C) It broke with many literary traditions of the past
(D) It spoke to the issue of reform and change
10. This passage would probably be read in which of the following academic courses?
(A) European history
(B) American literature
(C) Current events
(D) International affairs

Back Test with: Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 154 and Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 155

Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 154

Đọc đoạn văn sau và trả lời các câu hỏi: Until recently, most American entrepreneurs were men. Discrimination
against women in business, the demands of caring for families, and
lack of business training had kept the number of women entrepreneurs
small. Now, however, businesses owned by women account for more than
5 $40 billion in annual revenues, and this figure is likely to continue
rising throughout the 1990s. As Carolyn Doppelt Gray, an official
of the Small Business Administration, has noted, "The 1970s was the
decade of women entering management, and the 1980s turned out to
be the decade of the woman entrepreneur".
10
What are some of the factors behind this trend? For one thing, as
more women earn advanced degrees in business and enter the corporate
world, they are finding obstacles. Women are still excluded from
most executive suites. Charlotte Taylor, a management consultant,
15 had noted, "In the 1970s women believed if they got an MBA and worked
hard they could become chairman of the board. Now they've found out
that isn't going to happen, so they go out on their own".

In the past, most women entrepreneurs worked in "women's" fields: cosmetics
20 and clothing, for example. But this is changing. Consider ASK Computer
Systems, a $22-million-a-year computer software business. It was
founded in 1973 by Sandra Kurtzig, who was then a housewife with
degrees in math and engineering. When Kurtzig founded the business,
her first product was software that let weekly newspapers keep tabs
25 on their newspaper carriers-and her office was a bedroom at home,
with a shoebox under the bed to hold the company's cash. After she
succeeded with the newspaper software system, she hired several bright
computer-science graduates to develop additional programs. When these
were marketed and sold, ASK began to grow. It now has 200 employees,
30 and Sandra Kurtzig owns $66.9 million of stock.

Of course, many women who start their own businesses fail, just as
men often do. They still face hurdles in the business world, especially
problems in raising money; the banking and finance world is still
35 dominated by men, and old attitudes die hard. Most businesses owned
by women are still quite small. But the situation is changing; there
are likely to be many more Sandra Kurtzigs in the years ahead.1. What is the main idea of this passage?
(A) Women today are better educated than in the past, making them more attractive to the business world.
(B) The computer is especially lucrative for women today.
(C) Women are better at small businesses than men are.
(D) Women today are opening more businesses of their own.
2. The word "excluded" in line 13 is closest in meaning to
(A) not permitted in
(B) often invited to
(C) decorators of
(D) charged admission to
3. All of the following were mentioned in the passage as detriments to women in the business world EXCEPT
(A) women were required to stay at home with their families
(B) women lacked ability to work in business
(C) women faced discrimination in business
(D) women were not trained in business
4. In line 17, "that" refers to
(A) a woman becomes chairman of the board
(B) women working hard
(C) women achieving advanced degrees
(D) women believing that business is a place for them
5. According to the passage, Charlotte Taylor believes that women in the 1970s
(A) were unrealistic about their opportunities in business management
(B) were still more interested in education than business opportunities
(C) had fewer obstacles in business than they do today
(D) were unable to work hard enough to succeed in business
6. The author mentions the "shoebox under the bed" in the third paragraph in order to
(A) show the frugality of women in business
(B) show the resourcefulness of Sandra Kurtzig
(C) point out that initially the financial resources of Sandra Kurtzig's business were limited
(D) suggest that the company needed to expand
7. In line 20, the word "this" refers to
(A) women becoming entrepreneurs
(B) women buying cosmetics and clothing
(C) women working in "women's fields"
(D) women staying at home
8. The expression "keep tabs on" in line 24-25 is closest in meaning to
(A) recognize the appearance of
(B) keep records of
(C) provide transportation for
(D) pay the salaries of
9. The word "hurdles" in line 33 can be best replaced by
(A) fences
(B) obstacles
(C) questions
(D) small groups
10. It can be inferred from the passage that the author believes that businesses operated by women are small because
(A) women prefer a small intimate setting
(B) women can't deal with money
(C) women are not able to borrow money easily
(D) many women fail at large businesses
11. The author's attitude about the future of women in business is
(A) skeptical
(B) optimistic
(C) frustrated
(D) negative

Back Test with: Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 154 and Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 153

Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 153

Đọc đoạn văn sau và trả lời các câu hỏi: While most desert animals will drink water if confronted with it,
for many of them the opportunity never comes. Yet all living things
must have water, or they will expire. The herbivores find it in desert
plants. The carnivores slake their thirst with the flesh and blood
5 of living prey. One of the most remarkable adjustments, however,
has been made by the tiny kangaroo rat, who not only lives without
drinking but subsists on a diet of dry seeds containing about 5%
free water. Like other animals, he has the ability to manufacture
water in his body by a metabolic conversion of carbohydrates. But
10 he is notable for the parsimony with which he conserves his small
supply by every possible means, expending only minuscule amounts
in his excreta and through evaporation from his respiratory tract.

Investigation into how the kangaroo rat can live without drinking
15 water has involved various experiments with these small animals.
Could kangaroo rats somehow store water in their bodies and slowly
utilize these resources in the long periods when no free water is
available from dew or rain? The simplest way to settle this question
was to determine the total water content in the animals to see if
20 it decreases as they are kept for long periods on a dry diet. If
they slowly use up their water, the body should become increasingly
dehydrated, and if they begin with a store of water, this should
be evident from an initial high water content. Results of such experiments
with kangaroo rats on dry diets for more than 7 weeks showed that
25 the rats maintained their body weight. There was no trend toward
a decrease in water content during the long period of water deprivation.
When the kangaroo rats were given free access to water, they did
not drink water. They did nibble on small pieces of watermelon, but
this did not change appreciably the water content in their bodies,
30 which remained at 66.3 to 67.2 during this period.

This is very close to the water content of dry-fed animals (66.5),
and the availability of free water, therefore, did not lead to any
"storage" that could be meaningful as a water reserve. This makes
35 it reasonable to conclude that physiological storage of water is
not a factor in the kangaroo rat's ability to live on dry food.1. What is the topic of this passage?
(A) Kangaroo rats
(B) Water in the desert
(C) Desert life
(D) Physiological experiments
2. The word "expire" inline 3 is closest in meaning to
(A) become ill
(B) die
(C) shrink
(D) dehydrate
3. Which of the following is NOT a source of water for the desert animals?
(A) Desert plants
(B) Metabolic conversion of carbohydrates in the body
(C) The blood of other animals
(D) Streams
4. The word "it" in line 3 refers to
(A) a living thing
(B) the desert
(C) the opportunity
(D) water
5. The author states that the kangaroo rat is known for all of the following EXCEPT
(A) the economy with which it uses available water.
(B) living without drinking water.
(C) breathing slowly and infrequently.
(D) manufacturing water internally.
6. The word "parsimony" in line 10 is closest in meaning to
(A) intelligence.
(B) desire.
(C) frugality.
(D) skill.
7. It is implied by the author that desert animals can exist with little or no water because of
(A) less need for water than other animals.
(B) many opportunities for them to find water.
(C) their ability to eat plants.
(D) their ability to adjust to the desert environment.
8. The word "deprivation" inline 26 is closest in meaning to
(A) preservation.
(B) renewal.
(C) examination.
(D) withholding.
9. According to the passage, the results of the experiments with kangaroo rats showed that
(A) kangaroo rats store water for use during dry periods.
(B) kangaroo rats took advantage of free access to water.
(C) there was no significant change in body weight due to lack of water or accessibility to water.
(D) a dry diet seems detrimental to the kangaroo rat's health.

Back Test with: Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 152 and Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 153

Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 152

Đọc đoạn văn sau và trả lời các câu hỏi: Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an
individual becomes sensitive to a substance that is harmless or even
wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example,
rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods
5 can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first,
the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with
the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually longer than
a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has
begun to develop.
10
Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since
it can show up so many different ways. Your symptoms could be caused
by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking
arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common
15 food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate,
oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if
these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines
mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective.
Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine,
20 monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain
these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled
herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many
Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some people have
been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins,
25 particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit
from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and foods
high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds,
green peppers, peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular
by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book Why your Child is
30 Hyperactive. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing
whether the diet is effective.1. The topic of this passage is
(A) reactions to foods
(B) food and nutrition
(C) infants and allergies
(D) a good diet
2. According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to
(A) the vast number of different foods we eat
(B) lack of a proper treatment plan
(C) the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems
(D) the use of prepared formula to feed babies
3. The word "symptoms" in line 12 is closest in meaning to
(A) indications
(B) diet
(C) diagnosis
(D) prescriptions
4. The phrase "set off" in lines 19 is closest in meaning to
(A) relieved
(B) identified
(C) avoided
(D) triggered
5. What can be inferred about babies from this passage?
(A) They can eat almost anything.
(B) They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants.
(C) They gain little benefit from being breast fed.
(D) They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early.
6. The word "hyperactive" in line 25 is closest in meaning to
(A) overly active
(B) unusually low activity
(C) excited
(D) inquisitive
7. The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has to do with the infant's
(A) lack of teeth
(B) poor metabolism
(C) underdeveloped intestinal tract
(D) inability to swallow solid foods
8. The word "these" in line 27 refers to
(A) food additives
(B) food colorings
(C) unnutritious foods
(D) foods high in salicylates
9. Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage?
(A) Eating more ripe bananas
(B) Avoiding all Oriental foods
(C) Getting plenty of sodium nitrate
(D) Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet
10. According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT
(A) verified by researchers as being consistently effective
(B) available in book form
(C) beneficial for hyperactive children
(D) designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives

Back Test with: Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 152 and Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 151

Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 151

Đọc đoạn văn sau và trả lời các câu hỏi: "The economic history of the United States", one scholar has written,
"is the history of the rise and development of the capitalistic system."
The colonists of the eighteenth century pushed forward what those
of the seventeenth century had begun: the expansion and elaboration
5 of an economy born in the great age of capitalist expansion.

Our excellent natural resources paved the way for the development
of abundant capital to increase our growth. Capital includes the
tools-such as machines, vehicles, and buildings-that make the outputs
10 of labor and resources more valuable. But it also includes the funds
necessary to buy those tools. If a society had to consume everything
it produced just to stay alive, nothing could be put aside to increase
future productions. But if a farmer can grow more corn than his family
needs to eat, he can use the surplus as seed to increase the next
15 crop, or to feed workers who build tractors. This process of capital
accumulation was aided in the American economy by our cultural heritage.
Saving played an important role in the European tradition; it contributed
to Americans' motivation to put something aside today for the tools
to buy tomorrow.
20
The great bulk of the accumulated wealth of America, as distinguished
from that which was consumed, was derived either directly or indirectly
from trade. Though some manufacturing existed, its role in the accumulation
of capital was negligible. A merchant class of opulent proportions
25 was already visible in the seaboard cities, its wealth the obvious
consequence of shrewd and resourceful management of the carrying
trade. Even the rich planters of tidewater Virginia and the rice
coast of South Carolina finally depended for their genteel way of
life upon the ships and merchants who sold their tobacco and rice
30 in the markets of Europe. As colonial production rose and trade expanded,
a business community emerged in the colonies, linking the provinces
by lines of trade and identity of interest.1. With what subject is this passage mainly concerned?
(A) Geography
(B) Finance
(C) Economics
(D) Culture
2. The phrase "paved the way for" in line 7 is closest in meaning to
(A) paid for
(B) supported
(C) accumulated
(D) resembled
3. In line 10 the word "it" refers to
(A) growth
(B) resources
(C) labor
(D) capital
4. According to the passage, capital includes all of the following EXCEPT
(A) factories
(B) tractors
(C) money
(D) workers
5. In line 10, the word "funds" is closest in meaning to
(A) money
(B) resources
(C) output
(D) support
6. The phrase "put aside" in lines 13 is closest in meaning to
(A) hidden
(B) saved
(C) reviewed
(D) consumed
7. According to the passage, which of the following would lead to accumulating capital?
(A) Training workers who produce goods
(B) Studying the cultural history of the country
(C) Consuming what is produced
(D) Planting more of a crop than is needed
8. It can be inferred from the passage that the European ancestors of early Americans
(A) sent many tools to America
(B) taught their skills to their offspring
(C) were accustomed to saving
(D) were good farmers
9. According to the passage, the emergence of a business community in the colonies was a result of
(A) efficient saving
(B) the immigration of wealthy bankers
(C) the success of production and trade
(D) the existence of manufacturing

Back Test with: Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 150 and Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 151

Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 150

Đọc đoạn văn sau và trả lời các câu hỏi: In the early 1800s, to reach the jump-off point for the West, a family
from the East of the United States could either buy steamboat passage
to Missouri for themselves, their wagons, and their livestock or-as
happened more often-simply pile everything into a wagon, hitch up
5 a team, and begin their overland trek right in their front yard.

Along the macadamized roads and turnpikes east of the Missouri River,
travel was comparatively fast, camping easy, and supplies plentiful.
Then, in one river town or another, the neophyte emigrants would
10 pause to lay in provisions. For outfitting purposes, the town of
Independence had been preeminent ever since 1827, but the rising
momentum of pioneer emigration had produced some rival jump-off points.
Westport and Fort Leavenworth flourished a few miles upriver. St.
Joseph had sprung up 55 miles to the northwest; in fact, emigrants
15 who went to Missouri by riverboat could save four days on the trail
by staying on the paddle-wheelers to St. Joe before striking overland.

At whatever jump-off point they chose, the emigrants studied guidebooks
and directions, asked questions of others as green as themselves,
20 and made their final decisions about outfitting. They had various,
sometimes conflicting, options. For example, either pack animals
or two-wheel carts or wagons could be used for the overland crossing.
A family man usually chose the wagon. It was the costliest and slowest
of the three, but it provided space and shelter for children and
25 for a wife who likely as not was pregnant. Everybody knew that a
top-heavy covered wagon might blow over in a prairie wind or be overturned
by mountain rocks, that it might mire in river mud or sink to its
hubs in desert sand-but maybe if those things happened on this trip,
they would happen to someone else. Anyway, most pioneers, with their
30 farm background, were used to wagons.1. What is the topic of this passage?
(A) Important river towns
(B) Getting started on the trip west
(C) The advantages of traveling by wagon
(D) Choosing a point of departure
2. All of the following can be inferred from the passage about travel east of the Missouri EXCEPT that it
(A) was faster than in the West
(B) was easier than in the West
(C) took place on good roads
(D) was usually by steamboat
3. The phrase "jump-off point" in lines 1, 13 and 18 is closest in meaning to
(A) a bridge across a river
(B) a point of departure
(C) a gathering place
(D) a trading post
4. Which of the cities that served as a jump-off point can be inferred from the passage to be farthest west?
(A) Independence
(B) St. Joseph
(C) Westport
(D) Fort Leavenworth
5. The word "preeminent" in line 11 is closest in meaning to
(A) oldest
(B) superior
(C) most easily reached
(D) closest
6. The author implies in the passage that the early emigrants
(A) knew a lot about travel
(B) were well stocked with provisions when they left their homes
(C) left from the same place in Missouri
(D) preferred wagon travel to other types of travel
7. The word "neophyte" in line 9 is closest in meaning to
(A) eager
(B) courageous
(C) prosperous
(D) inexperienced
8. All of the following were mentioned in the passage as options for modes of transportation from the Missouri River to the West EXCEPT
(A) a wagon
(B) a riverboat
(C) a pack animal
(D) a two-wheel cart
9. In line 16, the word "striking" is closest in meaning to
(A) hitting
(B) orienting
(C) departing
(D) marking
10. The expression "green" in line 19 is closest in meaning to
(A) frightened
(B) optimistic
(C) inexperienced
(D) weary
11. All of the following features of the covered wagon made it unattractive to the emigrants EXCEPT
(A) the speed at which it could travel
(B) its bulk
(C) its familiarity and size
(D) its cost
12. In line 28, the phrase "those things" refers to
(A) the types of transportation
(B) the belongings of the pioneers
(C) the problems of wagon travel
(D) the overland routes

Back Test with: Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 150 and Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 149

Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 149

Đọc đoạn văn sau và trả lời các câu hỏi: There are many theories of aging, but virtually all fall into the
category of being hypotheses with a minimum of supporting evidence.
One viewpoint is that aging occurs as the body's organ systems become
less efficient. Thus failures in the immune system, hormonal system,
5 and nervous system could all produce characteristics that we associate
with aging. Following a different vein, many current researchers
are looking for evidence at the cellular and sub cellular level.
It has been shown that cells such as human fibroblasts (generalized
tissue cells) grown in culture divide only a limited number of times
10 and then die. (Only cancer cells seem immortal in this respect.)
Fibroblast cells from an embryo divide more times than those taken
from an adult. Thus some researchers believe that aging occurs at
the cellular level and is part of the cell's genetic makeup. Any
event that disturbs the cell's genetic machinery such as mutation,
15 damaging chemicals in the cell's environment, or loss of genetic
material, could cause cells to lose their ability to divide and thus
bring on aging. Other theories of aging look at different processes.

Chronological aging refers to the passage of time since birth and
20 is usually measured in years. While chronological age can be useful
in estimating the average status of a large group of people, it is
a poor indicator of an individual person's status because there is
a tremendous amount of variation from one individual to the next
in regard to the rate at which biological age changes occur. For
25 example, on the average, aging results in people losing much of their
ability to perform strenuous activities, yet some elderly individuals
are excellent marathon runners.

Another type of aging is cosmetic aging, which consists of changes
30 in outward appearance with advancing age. This includes changes in
the body and changes in other aspects of a person's appearance, such
as the style of hair and clothing, the type of eyeglasses, and the
use of a hearing aid. Like chronological aging, it is frequently
used to estimate the degree to which other types of aging have occurred.
35 However, it is an inaccurate indicator for either purpose because
of variation among individuals and because a person's appearance
is affected by many factors that are not part of aging, including
illness, poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight.1. The author believes the theories of aging are
(A) well-supported hypotheses
(B) poorly supported hypotheses
(C) proven theories
(D) interesting ideas
2. In line 7, the word "evidence" refers to
(A) evidence of aging
(B) evidence of cancer
(C) evidence of human fibroblasts
(D) evidence of cell division
3. The word "vein" in line 6 is closest in meaning to
(A) part of the body
(B) point of view
(C) blood vessel
(D) cellular level
4. The author of the article points out that cancer cells
(A) divide infinitely
(B) divide and then die
(C) divide more in adults than in embryos
(D) bring on aging
5. The word "culture" in line 9 is closest in meaning to
(A) libraries
(B) a special environment
(C) a society's traditions and values
(D) a toxic substance
6. It can be inferred from the passage that fibroblast cells
(A) divide fewer times at later stages in human life
(B) are not a focus in cellular research on aging
(C) are similar to cancer cells in rate of division
(D) disfunction in the aging process of the body's immune system
7. As explained in this passage, the theory of aging which examines the cellular level would NOT assign which of the following as a cause of aging?
(A) Mutation
(B) Failure of the body's organ system
(C) Loss of genetic material
(D) Chemical damage from the environment
8. According to the passage, chronological aging is not a good indicator of an individual's status regarding aging because
(A) elderly people are often athletic
(B) there is individual variation in the rate of biological aging
(C) strenuous activities are not good measures of age
(D) it is difficult to get accurate records of birth dates
9. The author implies all of the following about cosmetic aging EXCEPT
(A) It does not occur at the same rate for all people
(B) It is a poor indicator of chronological age
(C) Illness, poor nutrition, and exposure to sunlight cause aging to occur
(D) It is described by changes in outward appearance

Back Test with: Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 148 and Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 149

Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 148

Đọc đoạn văn sau và trả lời các câu hỏi: It takes a long time to raise a family of owlets, so the great horned
owl begins early in the year. In January and February, or as late
as March in the North, the male calls to the female with a resonant
hoot. The female is larger than the male. She sometimes reaches a
5 body length of twenty-two to twenty-four inches, with a wingspread
up to fifty inches. To impress her, the male does a strange courtship
dance. He bobs. He bows. He ruffles his feathers and hops around
with an important air. He flutters from limb to limb and makes flying
sorties into the air. Sometimes he returns with an offering of food.
10 They share the repast, after which she joins the dance, hopping and
bobbing about as though keeping time to the beat of an inner drum.

Owls are poor home builders. They prefer to nest in a large hollow
in a tree or even to occupy the deserted nest of a hawk or crow.
15 These structures are large and rough, built of sticks and bark and
lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest on a rocky ledge,
or even on the bare ground. even to occupy the deserted nest of a
hawk or crow. These structures are large and rough, built of sticks
and bark and lined with leaves and feathers. Sometimes owls nest
20 on a rocky ledge, or even on the bare ground. The mother lays two
or three round, dull white eggs. Then she stoically settles herself
on the nest and spreads her feather skirts about her to protect her
precious charges from snow and cold.

25 It is five weeks before the first downy white owlet pecks its way
out of the shell. As the young birds feather out, they look like
wise old men with their wide eyes and quizzical expressions. They
clamor for food and keep the parents busy supplying mice, squirrels,
rabbits, crayfish, and beetles. Later in the season baby crows are
30 taken. Migrating songsters, waterfowl, and game birds all fall prey
to the hungry family. It is nearly ten weeks before fledglings leave
the nest to search for their own food. The parent birds weary of
family life by November and drive the young owls away to establish
hunting ranges of their own.1. What is the topic of this passage?
(A) Raising a family of great horned owls
(B) Mating rituals of great horned owls
(C) Nest building of great horned owls
(D) Habits of young great horned owls
2. In line 3-4, the phrase "a resonant hoot" is closest in meaning to
(A) an instrument
(B) a sound
(C) a movement
(D) an offering of food
3. It can be inferred from the passage that the courtship of great horned owls
(A) takes place on the ground
(B) is an active process
(C) happens in the fall
(D) involves the male alone
4. According to the passage, great horned owls
(A) are discriminate nest builders
(B) need big nests for their numerous eggs
(C) may inhabit a previously used nest
(D) build nests on tree limbs
5. According to the passage, which of the following is the mother owl's job?
(A) To initiate the courtship ritual
(B) To feed the young
(C) To sit on the nest
(D) To build the nest
6. The phrase "precious charges" in lines 23 refers to
(A) the eggs
(B) the nest
(C) the hawks and crows
(D) other nesting owls
7. According to the passage, young owlets eat everything EXCEPT
(A) other small birds
(B) insects
(C) small mammals
(D) nuts and seeds
8. In line 27, the word "they" refers to
(A) the wise old men
(B) the adult birds
(C) the young birds
(D) the prey
9. What can be inferred from the passage about the adult parents of the young great horned owls?
(A) They are sorry to see their young leave home.
(B) They are lazy and careless about feeding the small owlets.
(C) They probably don't see their young after November.
(D) They don't eat while they are feeding their young.
10. The phrase "weary of" in line 32 is closest in meaning to
(A) tire of
(B) become sad about
(C) support
(D) are attracted to

Back Test with: Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 148 and Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 147

Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 147

Đọc đoạn văn sau và trả lời các câu hỏi: A binary star is actually a pair of stars that are held together by
the force of gravity. Although occasionally the individual stars
that compose a binary star can be distinguished, they generally appear
as one star. The gravitational pull between the individual stars
5 of a binary star causes one to orbit around the other.
From the orbital pattern of a binary, the mass of its stars can be
determined: the gravitational pull of a star is in direct proportion
to its mass, and the strength of the gravitational force of one star
on another determines the orbital pattern of the binary. Scientists
10 have discovered stars that seem to orbit around an empty space. It
has been suggested that such a star and the empty space really compose
a binary star. The empty space is known as a black hole, a star with
such a strong gravitational force that no light is able to get through.1. A binary star could best be described as
(A) stars that have been forced apart
(B) a star with a strong gravitational force
(C) two stars pulled together by gravity
(D) a large number of attached stars
2. According to the passage, what happens as a result of the gravitational force between the stars?
(A) One star circles the other.
(B) The mass of the binary star increases.
(C) A black hole is destroyed.
(D) The gravitational force decreases.
3. According to the passage, what can scientists learn from the pattern of a binary star's orbit?
(A) The proportion of the star's gravitational pull to its mass
(B) How to distinguish the stars that compose a binary
(C) Why there is no light in a black hole
(D) The mass of the stars that compose the binary
4. According to the passage, what is a black hole?
(A) An empty space around which nothing orbits
(B) A star with close to zero gravity
(C) A star whose gravitational force blocks the passage of light
(D) An empty space so far away that no light can reach it
5. According to the passage, what is a black hole?
(A) An empty space around which nothing orbits
(B) A star with close to zero gravity
(C) A star whose gravitational force blocks the passage of light
(D) An empty space so far away that no light can reach it
6. This passage would most likely be assigned reading in a course on
(A) botany
(B) astrophysics
(C) geology
(D) astrology

Back Test with: Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 146 and Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 147

Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 146

Đọc đoạn văn sau và trả lời các câu hỏi: It is a strong belief among certain groups of people that the medical community should take every possible step to keep a person alive, without regard for the quality of that person's life. But other people argue just as strongly that patients who are facing 5 a life of pain and incumberance on others have the right to decide for themselves whether or not to continue with life-prolonging medications and therapies. The question, however, is really far more difficult than just the issue of a terminally ill patient of sound mind who directs the physician not to continue with any treatment that does 10 not in any way cure the disease but only helps to draw out a painful death. When the quality of life has disintegrated, when there is
no hope of reprieve, when there is intense and everpresent pain, does the patient have the right to be put to death? The patient in this case is not asking the physician to discontinue treatment but 15 instead is requesting the physician, the supposed protector of life,
to purposefully bring a life to a close.

1. With what subject is the passage mainly concerned?
(A) Community beliefs
(B) Ways to prolong life
(C) The right to die
(D) The role of the physician
2. The phrase "medical community" in line 1-2 means
(A) the area around a hospital
(B) medicines and therapies
(C) doctors and nurses
(D) medical journals
3. "However", as it is used in line 7, could best be replaced by which of the following?
(A) On the contrary
(B) Thus
(C) In effect
(D) Certainly
4. In what situation does the author suggest that a patient might have the right to be put to death?
(A) When the patient is of sound mind
(B) When pain has disintegrated
(C) At the request of the physician
(D) When the patient is facing great pain and inevitable death
5. Which of the following statements best applies to the idea presented in the passage?
(A) The question of a patient's right to die is rarely faced by physicians.
(B) The author firmly states his opinion on the right to die.
(C) All people are in agreement as to a patient's right to die.
(D) Putting a patient to death is more serious than allowing a patient to die.

Back Test with: Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 146 and Reading-Comprehension-Lesson 145